Did No One Else Spot This?

I wrote this a while ago, but recently I have seen this study cited again and again. Someone please explain to me if I'm wrong.

"I was recently directed to the study published in January '09 and the web page titled "New Study: U.S. Ranks Last Among Other Industrialized Nations on Preventable Deaths."
(http://www.commonwealthfund.org/Content/Publications/In-the-Literature/2008/Jan/Measuring-the-Health-of-Nations--Updating-an-Earlier-Analysis.aspx)

I have looked over the study and have some questions.

Not in the study is the fact that 7.8% of Americans have diabetes,
while only 3% of the French population. So these numbers (109 deaths
per 100,000 for the us, 67 per 100k for Frenchies), leave me with a
question.

First, I believe it is important to notice that this is per 100,000 people, not per 100,000 people with these diseases, correct?


If
a higher percentage of Americans suffer from these diseases (
assuming all the other diseases mentioned follow the pattern of
diabetes, but maybe not to the same degree), then it follows rationally
that a higher number of people should die from them, correct?

Ok, if all the numbers follow suite with Diabetes, and 7800 people out of
every 100k have one of these conditions, thent only 109 a year from
that 7800 die,(for ease I'm just using diabetic numbers to represent all sufferers of amenable diseases).

Now, in France, they've got 3000 people out of every 100k that have diabetes, with 67 out of that 300 dying (same rules as above).

So,
correct me if I'm wrong please, about 1.4% of people with diabetes
(again using the diabetes figure for ease) in the US die compared to
2.2% of the French. Right?

So,
shouldn't the conclusion be drawn that it's better to have diabetes in
the US than in France? Or rather that the causes of these diseases
should be addressed, and not that the US needs to adopt European
health care systems? Shouldn't the French want to adopt our system? I mean,
wouldn't our system save another 25 people per 100k per year in France? (If the pattern holds for all mentioned diseases.)

Was
this addressed in the study, and not published in these conclusions?
Can you explain any errors I have made. I realize all of this is
predicated on the assumption that the US has higher rates of all of
these illnesses than the other countries, and that could in fact not be
true, but shouldn't that at least be addressed?"